SSA Bronze Badge Study Guide Q101-120

101) What force provides the forward motion necessary to move a glider through the air?
a) Lift.
b) Centripetal force.
c) Gravity.

102) What effect would gusts and turbulence have on the load factor of a glider with changes in airspeed?
a) Load factor decreases as airspeed increases.
b) Load factor increases as airspeed increases.
c) Load factor increases as airspeed decreases.

103) A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 23:1. How many feet will the glider lose in 8 nautical miles?
a) 1,840 feet.
b) 2,100 feet.
c) 2,750 feet.

104) A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 30:1. How many nautical miles will the glider travel while losing 2,000 feet?
a) 10 nautical miles.
b) 15 nautical miles.
c) 21 nautical miles.

105) A sailplane has lost 2,000 feet in 9 nautical miles. The best glide ratio for this sailplane is approximately:
a) 24:1.
b) 27:1.
c) 30:1.

106) How many feet will a glider sink in 10 nautical miles if its lift/drag ratio is 23:1?
a) 2,400 feet.
b) 2,600 feet.
c) 4,300 feet.

107) What would be a proper action or procedure to use if the pilot is getting too low on a cross-country flight in a sailplane?
a) Continue on course until descending to 1,000 feet above the ground and then plan the landing approach.
b) Fly directly into the wind and make a straight-in approach at the end of the glide.
c) Have a suitable landing area selected before reaching 2,000 feet AGL, and a specific field chosen upon reaching 1,500 feet AGL.

108) What corrective action should be taken if, while thermalling at minimum sink speed in turbulent air, the left wing drops while turning to the left?
a) Apply more opposite (right) aileron pressure than opposite (right) rudder pressure to counteract the over banking tendency.
b) Apply opposite (right) rudder pressure to slow the rate of turn.
c) Lower the nose before applying opposite (right) rudder and aileron pressure.

109) Approximately how many feet will a sailplane sink in 15 nautical miles if its lift/drag ratio is 22:1?
a) 2,700 feet.
b) 3,600 feet.
c) 4,100 feet.

110) A cross-country profile view helps ensure safe return-or-proceed altitude by providing a series of:
a) Decision points.
b) Speeds to fly.
c) Glide ratios.

111) A properly computed flight profile should allow the sailplane to arrive over either the departure or destination airport, or a safe landing place no less than:
a) 500 feet AGL.
b) 1,000 feet AGL.
c) 1,500 feet AGL.

112) The proper speed to fly when passing through lift with no intention to stop and work lift is:
a) Best L/D speed.
b) Minimum Sink speed.
c) Rough air red line.

113) After touch down on an off-field landing it is best to:
a) Allow the glider to roll towards a nearby gate.
b) Stop as soon as possible.
c) Intentionally ground loop the glider.

114) Off-field landing patterns should be flown:
a) Higher than normal.
b) Faster than normal.
c) The same as normal.

115) Generally speaking, while flying cross-country, you should always:
a) Remain on course line to prevent being lost.
b) Fly towards suitable landing areas when reaching 3,000 ft AGL.
c) Be within gliding range of suitable landing areas with a generous margin of safety.

116) While flying cross-country, you should be near, and select specific landing areas no less than:
a) 1,000 AGL.
b) 1,500 AGL.
c) 2,000 AGL.

117) While flying cross country, you should be on the upwind leg of a specific landing area no less than:
a) 1,000 AGL.
b) 1,500 AGL.
c) 2,000 AGL.

118) While flying cross-country, when selecting your primary landing area, you should also,
a) Have alternate landing area(s) available.
b) Never land with farm animals.
c) Disregard wind direction.

119) The preferred method to judge altitude during an off field landing in undulating terrain is:
a) Altimeter reading.
b) Depth perception.
c) Angles to the ground.

120) The most preferred surface for an off field landing is:
a) Freshly plowed field.
b) Freshly cultivated field (plowed, harrowed.)
c) Freshly harvested field. (Recently cut wheat, alfalfa, etc.)

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